The Origin of Three Languages

Re:I don't know(Score:1)
by mercedo (822671) * on 2005.11.13 3:02 (#14015992) (http://www.blogger.com/profile/11854854 Last Journal: 2005.11.11 2:43)
Hi, Deg, what's up? I must say this is a tough question, but I try to explain.
You see in our case, despite the fact that though we( South-west Japanese ) live adjacent to Korea, virtually we don't understand anything about Korean language. Yet historically speaking, Korean and Japanese languages are definetly correlated, we have to trace back to our mutual parent language several thousand years ago. I mean we don't understand mutually at all 'now'.
I can hardly believe that they -French and German -can communicate now in using their own languages although they have been living next to one another.
A little bit vague though from my memory in my school days, ca 4 millennia BC, a parent common language of these three started being spoken around the Black Sea. Then around 500 BC, core of Latin language family and Germanic language family started being formed in the respective area. So probably around 2500 years ago that the division of Germanic English and Latin French started. In 5th century, Gemanic tribes-Angles & Saxon started migrating what is now in England, so the division of English and German dates back to 1500 years ago.
This is a core of three languages. But by and large, they (French &German) don't understand one another( 2500 years from separation!).
And furthermore. Superficial share in many vocaburaries are completely different matter. Japanese language contains more than 80% of Chinese words yet linguisticaly speaking there's not in the least correlation between two languages. As a result of Germanic invasion in northern France in 3rd century, French language contains 15% of Germanic words yet there's no influence on its origin to be Latin language.
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